The period of gestation that is characterized by the largest fetal weight gain and fat deposition is the third trimester.
The third trimester is the last phase of gestation. It lasts for weeks 29 to 40, or months 7, 8, and 9.The baby grows, develop, and begins to change position in preparation for birth during this trimester. By the end, a full-term infant usually is between 19 and 21 inches long and between 6 and 9 pounds.
Pregnancy causes major physical and psychological changes in women. Weight gain during the third trimester is a normal part of pregnancy and typically not a reason for concern.
During the third trimester, many women will gain weight quickly. This is because, according to the Office on Women's Health (OWH)Trusted Source, the fetus normally accumulates the most weight during this time.
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#SPJ4he nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with guillain-barre' syndrome. what assessment finding would the nurse expect see in this client?
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with guillain-barre' syndrome and the assessment finding which the nurse would expect see in this client is quickly evolving hypo/areflexia in the afflicted limbs along with bilateral leg weakness.
Rapidly progressing bilateral leg weakness is the primary sign of classic GBS. People with additional subgroups display impairments in cranial nerve function, particularly weakness in both face muscles, or extraocular muscular dyskinesia. Some people have significant autonomic nerve dysfunction.
The symptoms of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), which can develop to a trough over a period of approximately four weeks, include quickly developing rising weakness, minor sensory loss, and hypo/areflexia . In 90% of instances, analysis of the cerebral spinal fluid reveals albuminocytologic separation.
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What is the most common debilitating disease of childhood among those of European descent?
O BPD
O Asthma
O Cystic fibrosis
O Pneumonia
Cystic fibrosis is the most common debilitating disease of childhood among those of European descent.
When do cystic fibrosis symptoms start to show up?Cystic fibrosis signs and symptoms often appear between 6 and 8 months after birth, however this might vary greatly from person to person. Age-related differences in symptoms that might impact different bodily parts
Babies with CF have a buildup of mucus in their bodies that is extremely thick and sticky. When this mucus accumulates in the lungs, it obstructs airways, which leads to infections and breathing issues. Air enters and leaves the lungs through tubes called airways. Lung infections may worsen as a baby with CF gets older.
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which condition is the infant at risk of developing when the mother of a 4-month-old infant has stopped giving iron-fortified formula and is giving honey for constipation
When a 4-month-old infant's mother has stopped giving iron-fortified formula and is giving honey for constipation, the infant is at risk of developing iron-deficiency anemia.
Iron is an essential nutrient for infants and young children for growth, brain development, and the formation of red blood cells. The iron-fortified formula is recommended for infants as a primary source of iron until they reach 6 months old, and then iron-rich foods should be introduced.
Honey is not a recommended food for infants as it can cause infant botulism, a serious condition caused by the growth of a type of bacteria, Clostridium botulinum, that produces a toxin in the gut of infants that can lead to muscle weakness and difficulty breathing.
Iron-deficiency anemia is a condition that occurs when the body doesn't have enough iron to produce enough hemoglobin (a protein in red blood cells) which carries oxygen to the body's tissues. Symptoms of iron-deficiency anemia in infants include pale skin, fatigue, and poor appetite. If left untreated, it can lead to developmental delays and other serious health problems.
It's important that the mother of the 4-month-old infant consult with a pediatrician or a healthcare provider for appropriate treatment for constipation and for appropriate nutrition for the infant.
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the abnormal condition of having a thrombus is known as
The abnormal condition of having a thrombus is known as thrombosis.
Thrombosis occurs when blood clots block modes or highways. Symptoms include pain and swelling in one leg, casket pain, or impassiveness on one side of the body. Complications of thrombosis can be life-changing, similar to a stroke or heart attack.
Being sedentary due to bed rest or sitting too long without moving, similar to during a trip. Family history of blood clots. Having a long-term ( indwelling) catheter, a tube in a blood vessel. rotundity.
Pain, swelling, and tenderheartedness in one of your legs( generally your shin or ham) a heavy pang in the affected area. warm skin in the area of the clot. red skin, particularly at the reverse of your leg below the knee.
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Fx involves:
O oral care
O stomach discomfort
O bone injury
O hair loss
FX involves bone injury.
A break of any size is called a fracture. However, it's called an open fracture( emulsion fracture), If the broken bone punctures the skin. A stress fracture is a break in the bone that develops because of repeated or dragged forces against the bone.
Symptoms that indicate bone injury include soft towel injury( bruise, rent, hematoma), bone movement, crepitation, localized tenderheartedness, discomfort, impassiveness in the distribution of a cranial sensitive whim-whams, palsy in the distribution of a cranial motor whim-whams, malocclusion, visual perceptivity disturbance.
There are numerous types of fractures, but the main orders are displaced,non-displaced, open, and closed. Displaced and non-displaced fractures relate to the alignment of the fractured bone. In a displaced fracture, the bone snaps into two or further corridors and moves so that the two ends aren't lined up straight.
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What are some practical ways to quit addictions? (15 points)
Quitting an addiction can be difficult, but there are several practical ways to help overcome an addiction and maintain sobriety:
Seek professional help: Addiction specialists, such as therapists, counselors, or doctors, can provide support and guidance to help you quit your addiction. They can also help you develop a treatment plan tailored to your specific needs.
Join a support group: Joining a support group of people who have gone through similar experiences can be helpful. They can provide emotional support, understanding, and tips for staying sober.
Create a support network: Having a support network of friends and family who understand your addiction and can support you through the process of quitting can be very beneficial.
Find healthy coping mechanisms: Find ways to cope with stress and other triggers without using your addiction. This can include exercise, therapy, journaling, and other self-care activities.
Avoid high-risk situations: Identify the situations, people, and environments that may trigger your addiction and avoid them as much as possible.
Medication-Assisted Treatment (MAT): Some addictions, such as opioid or alcohol addiction, may require a medication to help with withdrawal symptoms and reducing cravings.
Long-term follow-up and aftercare: Continuing care and follow-up after completing formal treatment, such as attending support groups or therapy, can help maintain recovery over time.
It's worth mentioning that quitting an addiction can be challenging and it may require time, effort and patience. Consult with your healthcare professional to evaluate which way is the best for you depending on the type and severity of addiction you are dealing with, and remember that every person's situation is unique and it's important to not compare your progress with others.
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of?
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma cases airway with the jaw thrust initiative have been unprofitable.
In adult victims of cardiac arrest, it's reasonable for saviors to perform casket condensing at a rate of 100 to 120/ min and to a depth of at least 2 elevations ( 5 cm) for an average grown-up while avoiding inordinate casket contraction depths( lesser than2.4 elevation( 6 cm)).
Prehospital EMS CPR duration was defined as the time from CPR inauguration by the EMS labor force to the time of the prehospital return of robotic rotation or to the time of sanitarium appearance. The primary outgrowth was 1- a month survival with a favorable neurological outgrowth( cerebral performance order scale 1 or 2).
Pre-Hospital Care Pre-hospital care means those exigency medical services rendered to exigency cases for logical, resuscitative, stabilizing, or precautionary purposes, precedent to and during transportation of similar cases to healthcare installations.
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A folding or portable stretcher is MOST beneficial when:
a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.
an injured patient cannot be placed on a long board due to severe back pain.
a conscious, alert patient must be carried down several flights of steep stairs.
a patient requires full spinal immobilization when spinal injury is suspected.
Answer:
a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.
Explanation:
A folding or portable stretcher is most beneficial when a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.
What is Portable stretcher?The objective of the contemporary portable stretcher is the same: to quickly and safely transport a patient over challenging terrain. Nowadays, there are many various types of portable stretchers available, including a variety of carry-able stretchers and patient-movement tools that are not wheeled.
Only a few particular kinds of portable stretchers created for use in particular circumstances include Basket stretchers are utilized in wilderness rescues to help patients climb difficult terrain. Flexible stretchers provide movement in confined spaces and allow an adequate staffing level to hoist the patient from a variety of angles.
Scoop stretchers enable for the removal from a scene of patients who are unable to be lifted due to injury.
Therefore, A folding or portable stretcher is most beneficial when a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.
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A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury:
Answer:A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury: requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation. If a person's tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged: minute volume will decrease.
CPR ventilations CANNOT be given through the O A. Mouth O C. Stoma B. Nose O D. Knee
Answer:
Knee
Explanation:
CPR ventilations can be given through the mouth, nose, and stoma. Therefore, the correct option is option D.
CPR (Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation) ventilations play a crucial role in providing life-saving aid to individuals experiencing cardiac arrest or respiratory failure. Ventilations involve supplying oxygen to the lungs of an unconscious person who is unable to breathe on their own, thereby ensuring that their organs receive adequate oxygenation. Remember, CPR ventilations are a crucial component of CPR that helps deliver oxygen to the victim's lungs and body. It is important to follow these guidelines accurately and seek professional training to ensure proper technique and effectiveness in providing CPR ventilations.
Therefore, the correct option is option D.
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Using the ICD-10-CM code book, assign code(s) for the following diagnosis: Initial
encounter for injury sustained in a fall from a ladder.
List the ICD-10-CM code to report the cause of injury.
Answer:
ICD-10 code W11. XXXA for Fall on and from ladder, initial encounter is a medical classification as listed by WHO under the range - Other external causes of accidental injury .
Explanation:
To assign the appropriate ICD-10-CM code(s) for the given diagnosis, "Initial encounter for injury sustained in a fall from a ladder," we need to identify codes that accurately represent the specific details of the injury.
The ICD-10-CM coding system provides a specific code category for external causes of injury, which includes codes that describe the cause or mechanism of the injury.
For the cause of injury in this case, which is a fall from a ladder, we can utilize the following ICD-10-CM code:
W11 - Fall on and from ladder
The code W11 is part of the "Fall on and from" category, and it specifically represents falls from a ladder. This code captures the cause of injury accurately and provides essential information for reporting purposes.
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A nurse is measuring a client's temperature orally. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Answer:
Place the probe in the posterior lingual pocket lateral to there midline.
Explanation:
A nurse who is measuring a client's temperature orally should take the following actions which include placing the probe in the posterior lingual pocket lateral to the midline region. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is temperature probe?A temperature probe can be defined as a type of sensor that is used to measure the temperature. A temperature probe works by monitoring the changes in the resistance of the given area such as solid, liquid, or gas molecules and converting it into a usable format for the operator for measurement.
Using a probe thermometer helps the nurse to make sure the proper internal food temperature is reached and maintained so a person don't risk being sick with a food-borne illness. One can use a probe thermometer to check the internal food temperatures when they cook, reheat, cool, thaw, and while keeping the food materials hot or cold.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
A nurse is measuring a client's temperature orally. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Place the probe in the posterior lingual pocket lateral to the midline.
B. Rest the probe on the lower lingual frenulum.
C. Place the probe centrally on top of the client's tongue.
D. Rest the probe under the tongue just beyond the client's teeth.
A common dose-limiting toxicity for most antitumor antibiotics is
A. myelosuppression B. an anaphylactic reaction C. coagulopathy D. a secondary malignancy
A common dose-limiting toxicity for most antitumor antibiotics is myelosuppression.
A disorder where the production of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelet is diminished because of decreased bone marrow activity. Some cancer treatments have a side effect called myelosuppression. Myeloablation is the term used to describe severe myelosuppression.
Your bone marrow might not be able to produce enough blood cells if you have cancer that affects the blood, such as multiple myeloma. This is referred to as bone marrow or myelosuppression.
Treatment that inhibits or prevents the bone marrow's production of new blood cells. In the bone marrow, myelosuppressive treatments like chemotherapy and radiation therapy kill both healthy cells and malignant cells.
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The combining from meaning chest is ___.
The combining word "thoraco-" is used as a prefix to denote the "thorax." The region of the body that lies between the neck and the abdomen is known as the thorax, or chest. The region of an insect's body between its head and abdomen is known as the thorax.
There are times when it is utilized in medical terminology. The word "breastplate" (thoraco) is ultimately derived from the Greek. Pectus, the root of the words expectorate, parapet, and pectoral, was a Latin word with a similar meaning that meant "chest" or "breast." Your thorax is referred to as chest in medicine. For breathing, digestion, blood circulation, and other vital biological activities, your chest is home to numerous vital structures.
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The observation that individuals who are deaf alsohave heart problems is an example of Choose one;
A. incomplete dominance; B. pleiotropy: C. epistasis D: coclomlnance
The observation that individuals who are deaf alsohave heart problems is an example of B. pleiotropy
Which condition from the list below exhibits pleiotropy?There are several instances of pleiotropic phenomena, including deafness and pigmentation in cats, the presence of frizzle features in cats, Marfan syndrome in people, sickle cell illnesses, phenylketonuria or PKU, albinism, Austin, and schizophrenia.
Whether selection operates in the same way in each environment depends on the connection between the fitness effects of alleles in each habitat, known as "environmental pleiotropy". The fitnesses of alleles are positively associated between habitats when there is "positive pleiotropy."
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the nurse conducting an abdominal assessment has completed the inspection of the abdominal area. which action by the nurse will then follow?
The action by the nurse which she will then follow after has completed the inspection of the abdominal area is auscultate to assess for bowel sounds.
Extensive abdominal palpation is done throughout an abdominal assessment by pressing firmly and steadily with the palm of the hand against the abdominal wall. Two-handed palpation may be advantageous, especially when assessing a bulk.
Peristalsis produces pops and sputters, which are considered normal sounds. Constipation is frequently indicated by reduced or missing bowel movements. Without the need for a stethoscope, enhanced bowel noises can occasionally be heard. Bowel sounds that are more lively than usual indicate increased intestinal activity. Having diarrhoea or right after eating may cause this.
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A/An _____ is a specialist in measuring the accuracy of vision.
Answer:
Optometrist
Explanation:
You're Welcome
A specialist in assessing the precision of eyesight is an optometrist.
What are optometry, optometrist, and their functions?The scope of the specialized medical area of optometry includes checking the eyes and other parts for faults or anomalies. Optometrists are doctors with specialized training in the care of the eyes.
The job of an optometrist is to look for visual impairments, evidence of trauma, ocular diseases (eye disorders) or abnormalities, and issues with general health. As part of your responsibilities at a high-end practice, perform a thorough evaluation of the eyes' condition. They are not medical doctors. They treat all kinds of defects related to the eyes.
Therefore, an optometrist is a specialist in measuring the accuracy of vision.
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What are the Social Security benefits for the child of a deceased parent?
Please diagram components of a pressure monitoring system and examine the role of nursing in ensuring accuracy of pressure waveforms and readings.
You can create infographic, hand-draw, or use Word for this assignment.
The level or voltage of a video stream with respect to time is often measured and shown on a waveform monitor or vectorscope.
Waveform monitor:
The waveform monitor may be used to show both the overall brightness of the TV image and the individual lines of one or two video feeds.
An oscilloscope that is used specifically for audio or video applications is the vectorscope. The vectorscope presents an X-Y plot for the two signals, which can reveal details about the connection between both signals. The waveform monitor or oscilloscope typically displays a signal plot with respect to time.
In order to measure and show the level or voltage of a video signal in relation to time, waveform monitors and vectorscopes are typically utilised.
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The diagnostic term Geriatric Alopecia actually means:
Answer:
Senescence related hair loss
The diagnostic term Geriatric Alopecia actually means Senescence related hair loss.
What is Alopecia?Alopecia is defined as a disease that develops when the body attacks its own hair follicles from where hair grows which can lead to hair loss anywhere on the body. Hair loss is unpredictable where hair may regrow without treatment which often happens when someone has a few bald spots.
In alopecia areata, the immune system mistakenly attacks the hair follicles which causes inflammation. This is unknown what causes the immune attack on hair follicles, but they believe that both genetic and environmental (non-genetic) factors play a role.
Thus, the diagnostic term Geriatric Alopecia actually means Senescence related hair loss.
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a client is to take clomiphene citrate for infertility. which outcome should the nurse explain is the expected action of this medication?
A client is to take clomiphene citrate for infertility and the outcome h the nurse should explain is the expected action of this medication is that it stimulate the release of ova.
Women who don't generate ova (eggs) but want to get pregnant can use clomiphene to induce ovulation (egg production) (infertility). It functions similarly to oestrogen, a female hormone that encourages the development and release of eggs from the ovaries.
Female gametes also known as ova or egg cells. There are two tiny, glands called the ovaries and both sides of your uterus. They create and store your eggs (also known as ovum), as well as the hormones that regulate both pregnancy and your menstrual cycle.
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Is transformational leader characteristics
Yes, transformational is definitely a leadership characteristic. This is because transformational leaders hear ideas with an open mind and respond without judgment or finality.
What are the characteristics of a transformational leader?There are four factors to transformational leadership. It includes idealized influence, inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individual consideration.
Transformational leadership is a theory of leadership where a leader works with teams or followers beyond their immediate self-interests to identify needed change, creating a vision to guide the change through influence, inspiration, and executing the change in tandem with committed members of a group.
Transformational leadership is a process that changes and transforms people. It is concerned with emotions, values, ethics, standards, and long-term goals. It includes assessing followers' motives, satisfying their needs, and treating them as full human beings.
Therefore, transformational is definitely a leadership characteristic.
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In addition to the Nutrition Facts panel, consumers may find various claims on food labels. These claims include nutrient claims, health claims, and structure-function claims. Identify the following as a nutrient claim, a health claim, or a structure-function claim. (Note: There may be more than one type of claim.)
Label Claim
"Low in sodium."
"Antioxidants protect brain health"
"Made with 100% whole-grain oats"
"Adequate folate in healthful diets may reduce a woman's risk of having a child with a brain or spinal cord birth defect."
"Fiber promotes regularity."
CHOOSE FROM THE DROP DOWN OPTIONS WHICH ARE
1. HEALTH CLAIM
2. NUTRITION CLAIM
3. STRUCTURE-FUNCTION CLAIM
Consumers can find a variety of claims on food labels in regards to the Nutrition Facts panel. These claims cover nutrients, health, and structure-function relationships. The following are the identification results for nutrients, health, or structure-function:
"Low in sodium" ⇒ Nutrition claim. "Antioxidants protect brain health" ⇒ Health claim."Made with 100% whole grain oats" ⇒ Nutrition claim. "Adequate folate in healthful diets may reduce a woman's risk of having a child with a brain or spinal cord birth defect". ⇒ Health claim."Fiber promotes regularity". ⇒ Structure-function claim.
A nutrition claim is a statement on a food label that asserts that the food has a certain nutritional benefit, such as "low in sodium". A health claim is a statement on a food label that asserts that the food has a certain health benefit. A structure-function claim is a statement on a food label that asserts that the food has a certain beneficial effect on the structure or function of the body. It's important to note that all claims on a food label must be truthful and not misleading and must meet the FDA regulations.
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a client is using a hypothermia blanket to reduce fever. which finding indicates a need for a change in the treatment?
Shivering seems to be the finding that suggests a change in therapy is required. Option 1 is correct.
A hypothermia blanket is utilized for heating & cooling cycles as needed to achieve and maintain an optimal body temperature. The thermistor probe can also be utilized in combination with manual operation, although it is not required. The unit has an alarm to warn of unexpected temperature variations as well as a circuit breaker to guard against current overload.
When more conservative methods, such as baths, cold packs, and antipyretics, fail to lower high fever, the blanket is most usually utilized. Other applications include maintaining normal body temperature during surgery or shock, inducing hypothermia during surgery to reduce metabolic activity and thus oxygen requirements, lowering intracranial pressure, controlling bleeding and intractable pain throughout patients with amputations, burns, or cancer, and providing warmth in instances of mild to moderate hypothermia.
When a client is using a hypothermia blanket to reduce fever, which finding indicates a need for a change in the treatment?
1. Shivering
2. Vomiting
3. Dehydration
4. Hypotension
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all of the following are common medications for type ii diabetes except one. which one is the exception? group of answer choices tolbutamide gtlyburide metformin humalog
All of the following are common medications tolbutamide, gtlyburide and metformin for type II diabetes except humalog.
An anti-diabetic drug called glibenclamide, sometimes referred to as glyburide, is used to treat type 2 diabetes. It is advised to take it along with a healthy diet and exercise routine. It can be taken along with other anti-diabetic drugs. In type 1 diabetes, it is not advised to use it alone. It is ingested orally.
A first-generation oral tolbutamide sulfonylurea drug, tolbutamide is a potassium channel blocker. If diet alone is ineffective for treating type 2 diabetes, this medication may be taken. The pancreas is stimulated to secrete more insulin by tolbutamide.
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Which of the following are feasible application of unknown bacterial species identification?
a) environmental microbiologists studying ape species to determine which would be the best model organisms to stimulate human disease
b) environmental microbiologists identifying species to monitor ecosystems response to stress
c)agricultural microbiologists identifying species to treat outbreaks among crops or livestock
d) clinical microbiologists studying the microorganisms to determine which would best produce synthetic plastics
e) agricultural microbiologists studying the microorganisms that maintain soil fertility by transforming nutrients through degradation and nitrogen fixation
Feasible application of unknown bacterial species identification: e) agricultural microbiologists studying microorganisms that maintain soil fertility by transforming nutrients through degradation and nitrogen fixation.
What are feasible applications of unknown bacterial species identification?Microbiologists must identify bacterial isolates for several practical reasons, like medical diagnostics, identifying pathogen isolated from a patient and identifying microbial contaminant responsible for food spoilage.
Accurate and definitive microorganism identification, including bacterial identification and pathogen detection is important for correct disease diagnosis, treatment of infection and trace-back of disease outbreaks associated with the microbial infections.
Identification of unknown bacteria is an integral module in most introductory Microbiology laboratory courses that involves identifying bacteria based on morphology, Gram reaction, and biochemical characteristics of bacteria.
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All pandemics are caused by infectious virus or bacteria that cross from animals to humansa. Trueb. False
Answer:
False, not all viruses are zoonotic diseases. Some originate within the human body such as influenza type a
Explanation:
Which antibiotics were used to treat soldiers in ww2?a. neomycinb. bacitarcinc. chloramphenicold. penicillin
A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should:
A man fell 12 feet from a roof and landed on his feet complaining of pain in his lower back but his vital signs were normal. What must be done is to immediately take him to a health care facility because of the possibility that the man suffered a spinal cord injury.
What is spinal cord injury?Spinal cord injury is a condition that causes damage to the nerves located in the spinal canal. Spinal cord injuries are generally caused by driving accidents, injuries during sports, or falls from heights.
The spinal cord is a canal from the brain that extends from the neck to the coccyx. These nerves play an important role in the process of sending signals from the brain to the rest of the body and vice versa. If this nerve is damaged, there will be disturbances in several body functions, such as loss of the ability to move or feel something.
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The combining form that means nail is
Onych/o is the combining form that denotes nail. Hence, the correct answer is B.
The combining form "onych/o" means nail. This term is used in medical terminology to refer to the nails of the hands and feet. The nails are made up of a hard protein called keratin and are formed in the matrix, the base of the nail, under the cuticle.
Onych/o is used to create medical terms related to the nails, such as onychomycosis, which is a fungal infection of the nails, and onycholysis, which is the separation of the nail from the nail bed. Other medical terms include onychogryphosis, which refers to thickened and curved nails, and onychodystrophy, which refers to a disorder of the nails characterized by abnormal growth or shape.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. Cutane/oB. Onych/oC. Myc/oD. Dermat/oThe correct answer is B.
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